Although it was stated that, at the end of the day, it would be entirely a matter for the UK, as the member state, to decide vis-à-vis the EU whether there would be a Scottish dimension to its delegation and that that was not a matter of EU law, it was also implied that there might be problems from other member states because they might think that a precedent was being set, blah-de-blah. It was also mentioned, however, that there are already precedents.Can you both comment on that?